This is a theoretical question.

I am adding "On Update/Delete" constraints to an existing foreign key.
I think I am changing the schema. My colleague does not think so.
Who is correct??

Thanks in advance.
Manan

mananvyas (AT) gmail (DOT) com wrote:
You are correct, adding those modifiers to the foreign key is a schema
change.

It's true that it does not add or remove any columns or tables. It also
doesn't change any existing data values, but it does change the way
DELETE or UPDATE works for the primary key of the referenced table.
This can have a significant impact on any application's workings, like
any other schema change.

So yes, you should follow such a schema change with thorough testing. ;-)

Regards,
Bill K.

Your colleague is an idiot.

On 5 Aug 2006 12:45:46 -0700, "--CELKO--" <jcelko212 (AT) earthlink (DOT) net>
wrote:

You misspelled "inexperienced".

Lemming
--
Curiosity *may* have killed Schrodinger's cat.