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#71
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That's not a change of the *semantics*. That's a change of the *syntax*. My claim is that in the possible worlds semantics, every predicate (and operator) that can vary from world to world implicitly is a function of the world. That complexity can usually be avoided because implicitly we assume that everything is talking the same world. But when you nest <> and K, it is no longer possible to make that assumption. Not without restrictions on what can be said. My point is that the knowability principle doesn't make any sense without explicit mention of possible worlds. It might make sense if we restrict the principle to propositions p that don't involve the knowability operator. But if we restrict it that way, we can't carry out Fitch's proof. |
#72
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Jan Hidders says... On 31 dec 2009, 18:47, stevendaryl3... (AT) yahoo (DOT) com (Daryl McCullough) wrote: From this it follows: 6. K_w'(p0) & K_w'(~K_w0(p0)) Since only true things are knowable, we have: 7. K_w'(p0) & ~K_w0(p0) That's no contradiction at all! The proposition p0 is known in one world, w', but not in another world, w0. It only becomes a contradiction when you erase the world suffixes. True, but you have now fundamentally changed the semantics of the K operator in the sense that the model theory now looks very different. You have essentially turned K from a unary operator K(p) to a binary operator K(w,p). That's not a change of the *semantics*. That's a change of the *syntax*. My claim is that in the possible worlds semantics, every predicate (and operator) that can vary from world to world implicitly is a function of the world. That complexity can usually be avoided because implicitly we assume that everything is talking the same world. But when you nest <> and K, it is no longer possible to make that assumption. Not without restrictions on what can be said. My point is that the knowability principle doesn't make any sense without explicit mention of possible worlds. |
#73
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stevendaryl3016 (AT) yahoo (DOT) com (Daryl McCullough) writes: That's not a change of the *semantics*. That's a change of the *syntax*. My claim is that in the possible worlds semantics, every predicate (and operator) that can vary from world to world implicitly is a function of the world. That complexity can usually be avoided because implicitly we assume that everything is talking the same world. But when you nest <> and K, it is no longer possible to make that assumption. Not without restrictions on what can be said. My point is that the knowability principle doesn't make any sense without explicit mention of possible worlds. It might make sense if we restrict the principle to propositions p that don't involve the knowability operator. But if we restrict it that way, we can't carry out Fitch's proof. I haven't worked through the semantic details (at least not recently), but the proof clearly "works" and the intuition behind the proof seems plausible enough. Suppose that p is true, but I don't know it. Then p & ~Kp is true. But surely, I could not know p & ~Kp. That is, I couldn't know "p is true, but I don't know that p is true." After all, if I know that conjunction, then I know that p is true, so how could I know that I don't know that p is true? The argument seems perfectly clear to me, both formally and informally. It actually is possible for "p & ~Kp" may be true, in which case "~K(p & |
#74
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Suppose that p is true, but I don't know it. Then p & ~Kp is true. But surely, I could not know p & ~Kp. That is, I couldn't know "p is true, but I don't know that p is true." After all, if I know that conjunction, then I know that p is true, so how could I know that I don't know that p is true? The argument seems perfectly clear to me, both formally and informally. |
#75
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Explicit in the formulas? So you really do want to change the syntax? |
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If not, I'm a bit puzzled as to how you want to change the semantics. It would help if you could provide a model theory to explain how you want to change the semantics. Right now the model theory I gave already does allow the operator K to be different in possible worlds. So how would your semantics differ from that? |
#76
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stevendaryl3... (AT) yahoo (DOT) com (Daryl McCullough) writes: That's not a change of the *semantics*. That's a change of the *syntax*. My claim is that in the possible worlds semantics, every predicate (and operator) that can vary from world to world implicitly is a function of the world. That complexity can usually be avoided because implicitly we assume that everything is talking the same world. But when you nest <> and K, it is no longer possible to make that assumption. Not without restrictions on what can be said. My point is that the knowability principle doesn't make any sense without explicit mention of possible worlds. It might make sense if we restrict the principle to propositions p that don't involve the knowability operator. But if we restrict it that way, we can't carry out Fitch's proof. I haven't worked through the semantic details (at least not recently), but the proof clearly "works" and the intuition behind the proof seems plausible enough. Suppose that p is true, but I don't know it. *Then p & ~Kp is true. But surely, I could not know p & ~Kp. *That is, I couldn't know "p is true, but I don't know that p is true." After all, if I know that conjunction, then I know that p is true, so how could I know that I don't know that p is true? The argument seems perfectly clear to me, both formally and informally. |
#77
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Jan Hidders says... Explicit in the formulas? So you really do want to change the syntax? I'm not advocating a change in the syntax, I'm just saying that the syntax of modal logic is inadequate to capture the intuition behind the knowability principle. |
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If not, I'm a bit puzzled as to how you want to change the semantics. It would help if you could provide a model theory to explain how you want to change the semantics. Right now the model theory I gave already does allow the operator K to be different in possible worlds. So how would your semantics differ from that? I would just use first-order logic semantics, and allow explicit quantification over possible worlds. The point about modal logic is that it is a simpler fragment of full first-order logic, but I think that it is not expressive enough to talk about complex issues of necessity and knowability. Fitch's paradox shows its limitations. |
#78
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On 2 jan, 00:14, stevendaryl3... (AT) yahoo (DOT) com (Daryl McCullough) wrote: Jan Hidders says... Explicit in the formulas? So you really do want to change the syntax? I'm not advocating a change in the syntax, I'm just saying that the syntax of modal logic is inadequate to capture the intuition behind the knowability principle. Doesn't that imply that you want to reformulate it in a different syntax? |
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I would just use first-order logic semantics, and allow explicit quantification over possible worlds. The point about modal logic is that it is a simpler fragment of full first-order logic, but I think that it is not expressive enough to talk about complex issues of necessity and knowability. Fitch's paradox shows its limitations. But is that not what the given model theory already does? It uses set theory rather then FOL, but since you want to talk about possible worlds and statements about statements, that seems more appropriate to me anyway. |
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The given model theory still seems to contain the paradox, so you will want to change it. Can you show how? |
#79
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W = the type of possible worlds A = the type of atomic propositions P = the type of all propositions |
#80
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Jan Hidders says... On 2 jan, 00:14, stevendaryl3... (AT) yahoo (DOT) com (Daryl McCullough) wrote: Jan Hidders says... Explicit in the formulas? So you really do want to change the syntax? I'm not advocating a change in the syntax, I'm just saying that the syntax of modal logic is inadequate to capture the intuition behind the knowability principle. Doesn't that imply that you want to reformulate it in a different syntax? I wouldn't say that I *want* to; I'm just saying that if I wanted to assert the knowability principle, then I would formulate it in something other than modal logic. I would just use first-order logic semantics, and allow explicit quantification over possible worlds. The point about modal logic is that it is a simpler fragment of full first-order logic, but I think that it is not expressive enough to talk about complex issues of necessity and knowability. Fitch's paradox shows its limitations. But is that not what the given model theory already does? It uses set theory rather then FOL, but since you want to talk about possible worlds and statements about statements, that seems more appropriate to me anyway. I don't think the model theory is rich enough. If you are going to allow nested instances of the knowability operator, then there is the issue of *who* knows what. The fact that proposition p is not known in world w1 is itself a proposition, and that proposition can be known, but *not* in w1. Another world, w2 could know that p is not known in w1. But you can't express that without world indices on the knowability operator. Now, it could be that we are not interested in what *another* world knows about this world. So we restrict our attention to one-world claims (all knowability operators refer to the same world). That's fine, and in that case, the knowability principle is just false in any nontrivial model of modal logic. The given model theory still seems to contain the paradox, so you will want to change it. Can you show how? Now that I think about it, it seems that it would be a mess to formalize. The problem is that if knowability is a two-place predicate (as opposed to an operator), then that means that formulas have to serve double-duty: both as formulas and as terms (that can be arguments to the knowability predicate). In higher-order type theory, I think we can do it this way: Introduce new types W = the type of possible worlds A = the type of atomic propositions P = the type of all propositions (the propositions are closed under the operations of and, or, implies, negation, universal and existential quantification) t : W x A --> P t(w,a) says "a is true in world w" k : W x P --> P k(w,p) says "p is known in world w" Then the knowability principle could be formalized as: forall p:P, (p -> exists w:W, k(w,p)) (any true proposition is known to be true in some world). I think it would be a lot of work to nail down all the details here, but my point is that the knowability principle can be formulated in a way that isn't susceptible to Fitch's proof. |
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