[posted and mailed, repondre en public, s'il vous plaît]

berthelot samuel (samuel.berthelot (AT) voila (DOT) fr) writes:
If you is logged in as nisse, and you say

exec some_sp

SQL Server first checks if nisse owns an object with this name. If
there is no match, SQL Server checks if dbo, database owner, owns a
procedure with this name. If there is no match, SQL Server does not
check any further.

If some_sp is fact owned by kalle, then you need to say:

exec kalle.some_sp

Note that kalle must have granted rights to execute the procedure. (The
same applies for procedures owned by dbo.)

Three more things to note here:

o Logins are server-level, and user names are on database level. They
are often the same. You may be logged in as nisse, but in the database
you may be sara.
o A special case: if nisse owns the database, you are not nisse in that
database, but you are dbo.
o sa or any other user with sysadmin rights is always dbo.

--
Erland Sommarskog, SQL Server MVP, sommar (AT) algonet (DOT) se

Books Online for SQL Server SP3 at
http://www.microsoft.com/sql/techinf...2000/books.asp

When you reference an object without specifying the owner, SQL Server
will first use the object owned by your userid. If none exists, the
dbo-owned version is used. You'll get an error if neither exists.

You can determine your current database user name with SELECT USER. I
suspect you will get different results when you login under the
different accounts. There is normally a one-to-one relationship between
logins and database users so only the login that owns the proc can
reference it without owner qualification.

--
Hope this helps.

Dan Guzman
SQL Server MVP

-----------------------
SQL FAQ links (courtesy Neil Pike):

http://www.ntfaq.com/Articles/Index....partmentID=800
http://www.sqlserverfaq.com
http://www.mssqlserver.com/faq
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"berthelot samuel" <samuel.berthelot (AT) voila (DOT) fr> wrote